That thread concerned a case in New York. I'm not planning a trip to New York and have not looked up their laws. Each state has some quirks, though over the years the important laws have converged.duns wrote:... let's discuss as a purely hypothetical matter ... your point that to unintentionally shoot someone means manslaughter. You don't define manslaughter -- would I be right to think it requires an element of negligence? If am right on that, then if your gun goes off because one of your attackers grabs it -- so shooting one of the other attackers -- it would have been unintentional on your part yet not necessarily negligent on your part. Therefore, it appears your point is not correct that unintentional shooting always equates with manslaughter.
I think it might be more useful to discuss an unintentional shooting in light of current Texas law.
First we have the common-law definition of manslaughter, which is killing a human being unintentionally, recklessly, or negligently.
Manslaughter under Texas law is defined in Penal Code Sec. 19.04:
The PC conveniently defines recklessly in Sec. 6.03(c):MANSLAUGHTER. (a) A person commits an offense if he recklessly causes the death of an individual.
You can compare the more serious offense of criminally negligent homicide and the definition of criminal negligence.A person acts recklessly, or is reckless, with respect to circumstances surrounding his conduct or the result of his conduct when he is aware of but consciously disregards a substantial and unjustifiable risk that the circumstances exist or the result will occur. The risk must be of such a nature and degree that its disregard constitutes a gross deviation from the standard of care that an ordinary person would exercise under all the circumstances as viewed from the actor's standpoint.
Now, mental state (mens rea, as the scholars call it) is subjective and an issue for a jury decision.
In your example, an assailant trying to take a weapon from an innocent person is already committing aggravated assault and robbery (taking property from a person by force). The criminal's behavior would already justify deadly force.
Furthermore, under Texas law, any result that occurs during the commission of a crime is the fault of the criminal actor (PC 6.04). That leads me to think that the criminal would have committed suicide, homicide, or aggravated assault, regardless of whose hand was on the grip of the pistol. The defender is innocent.
As usual, I am not a lawyer. A real lawyer would charge a fee for this answer, and it would be five pages single-spaced with a bunch of footnotes.
However, the law is supposed to be comprehensible to the average citizen, and Texas law mostly is.
- Jim