PENAL CODE
TITLE 2. GENERAL PRINCIPLES OF CRIMINAL RESPONSIBILITY
CHAPTER 9. JUSTIFICATION EXCLUDING CRIMINAL RESPONSIBILITY
Sec. 9.02. JUSTIFICATION AS A DEFENSE. It is a defense to prosecution that the conduct in question is justified under this chapter.
Sec. 9.06. CIVIL REMEDIES UNAFFECTED.
The fact that conduct is justified under this chapter does not abolish or impair any remedy for the conduct that is available in a civil suit.
SUBCHAPTER C. PROTECTION OF PERSONS
Sec. 9.31. SELF-DEFENSE. (a) Except as provided in Subsection (b), a person is justified in using force against another when and to the degree the actor reasonably believes the force is immediately necessary to protect the actor against the other's use or attempted use of unlawful force.
(Following chapters contain similar verbiage related to protection of property and other people.)
At first glance (at least to a non-lawyer) those seem to contradict each other. However, I found another article that explained the difference. It's from another non-lawyer, but it makes sense - the Penal Code doesn't prohibit someone from suing you in a civil court, but the Civil Code says you would be (should be?) immune from liability.CIVIL PRACTICE AND REMEDIES CODE
TITLE 4. LIABILITY IN TORT
CHAPTER 83. USE OF FORCE OR DEADLY FORCE
Sec. 83.001. CIVIL IMMUNITY. A defendant who uses force or deadly force that is justified under Chapter 9, Penal Code, is immune from civil liability for personal injury or death that results from the defendant's use of force or deadly force, as applicable.
http://www.southlakechl.com/2013/02/24/ ... nd-83-001/
Assuming section 9.02 of the Penal Code ("defense from prosecution") only refers to criminal prosecution, it seems that you could still be sued in civil court for defending yourself with deadly force. Does 83.001 in the Civil Code mean a judge would (should) immediately throw out any such suit, or does it just mean you can still be sued and incur legal expenses to defend yourself, but you can't be subject to fines/damages?