I don't know what will come from this but hopefully the TBAC will make Midland County follow the law.
Here is a photo for the wall of shame from a government agency not following the law.

Moderators: carlson1, Charles L. Cotton
No. Because the prohibition on carrying is based on whether they actually make 51% of their sales from alcohol (for on premises consumption), not whether they post a sign or not.karl wrote:So if this establishment is found to be improperly posting that sign, are you still bound by that law on their property?
Since Sept 1, they have to post a sign. No sign = defense to prosecution (HB 2664). See the thread http://www.texasshooting.com/TexasCHL_F ... =7&t=27085.ScottDLS wrote:No. Because the prohibition on carrying is based on whether they actually make 51% of their sales from alcohol (for on premises consumption), not whether they post a sign or not.karl wrote:So if this establishment is found to be improperly posting that sign, are you still bound by that law on their property?
I was debating whether to bring that up, however the OP question wasaustin-tatious wrote:Since Sept 1, they have to post a sign. No sign = defense to prosecution (HB 2664). See the thread http://www.texasshooting.com/TexasCHL_F ... =7&t=27085.ScottDLS wrote:No. Because the prohibition on carrying is based on whether they actually make 51% of their sales from alcohol (for on premises consumption), not whether they post a sign or not.karl wrote:So if this establishment is found to be improperly posting that sign, are you still bound by that law on their property?
The answer is NO because the prohibition on carry is based on the alcohol sales percentage, not the sign.So if this establishment is found to be improperly posting that sign, are you still bound by that law on their property?
Thanks for your reply. I see the difference you are talking about. But if there is a sign, I don't plan on ignoring it until and unless I have absolute proof the establishment is not really 51%. OR if it is absurd (like the Jared's postingScottDLS wrote:I was debating whether to bring that up, however the OP question wasaustin-tatious wrote:Since Sept 1, they have to post a sign. No sign = defense to prosecution (HB 2664). See the thread http://www.texasshooting.com/TexasCHL_F ... =7&t=27085.ScottDLS wrote: No. Because the prohibition on carrying is based on whether they actually make 51% of their sales from alcohol (for on premises consumption), not whether they post a sign or not.The answer is NO because the prohibition on carry is based on the alcohol sales percentage, not the sign.So if this establishment is found to be improperly posting that sign, are you still bound by that law on their property?
Whether you have a defense to prosecution for carrying in a 51% location without a sign (you do) is a different issue.
Just one very minor, but important technical correction. The prohibition is not based on the actual sales, but on what TABC determines the percentage to be. If TABC determined that Jared's (to pick one ridiculous example) received more than 51% of their gross income from alcohol for on premises consumption, the ban would be in effect even if Jared's sold one glass of wine per year.ScottDLS wrote:No. Because the prohibition on carrying is based on whether they actually make 51% of their sales from alcohol (for on premises consumption), not whether they post a sign or not.karl wrote:So if this establishment is found to be improperly posting that sign, are you still bound by that law on their property?
Always a valued asset round these parts. All the best in your new venture.srothstein wrote: A quick note also to let you all know, if interested, that I am no longer employed by TABC. I recently resigned my position and am currently looking for work. I will still use my knowledge and expertise to post when I can, but I can no longer be said to be your local TABC expert.